| written 8.9 years ago by | modified 3.9 years ago by |
Mumbai University > Information Technology, Computer Engineering > Sem 3 > Applied Mathematics 3
Marks: 6M
Year: Dec 2015
| written 8.9 years ago by | modified 3.9 years ago by |
Mumbai University > Information Technology, Computer Engineering > Sem 3 > Applied Mathematics 3
Marks: 6M
Year: Dec 2015
| written 8.9 years ago by |
Let f(z)=u+i v be analytic
We have real part,
$u = x^3 - 3x^2y - y^3$
Differentiating with respect to
Therefore, $v_x=3x^2-6xy$
Again, differentiating with respect to x, we get
$v_{xx} = 6x - 6y$
Now, differentiating u with respect to y, we get
$u_y=0-3x^2-3y^2$
Again, differentiating with respect to y, we get
$u_{yy} = -6y\\ u_{xx} + u_{yy} = 6x - 6y - 6y$
Therefore, u does not satisfy Laplace equation and hence it is not a harmonic function.
Thus, v is not analytic function
f(z)= u + i v
Hence, the statement is true. There does not exist an analytic function whose real part is
$x^3-3x^2 y-y^3$