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Find the value of 'p' such that the function \[ f(x)=\dfrac {1}{2} \log (x^2 + y^2)+t\tan^{-1}\left ( \dfrac {py}{x} \right )\]
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written 2.9 years ago by | modified 9 months ago by |
Answer: Let $f(z)=\dfrac{1}{2}log(x^2+y^2)+itan^{-1}(\dfrac{py}{x})$
$f(z)=u+iv$
On comparing , we get ,
$u=\dfrac{1}{2}log(x^2+y^2)$ and $v=tan^{-1}(\dfrac{py}{x})$
Differentiating u and v partially with respect to x and y respectively,
$u_x=\dfrac{x}{x^2+y^2} , \ u_y=\dfrac{y}{x^2+y^2}$
$v_x=-\dfrac{py}{x^2+p^2y^2} , \ u_y=\dfrac{px}{x^2+p^2y^2}$
Since , the given functions are analytic .
$u_x=v_y \ and \ u_y=-v_x$
$\dfrac{x}{x^2+y^2}=\dfrac{px}{x^2+p^2y^2}$ and $\dfrac{y}{x^2+y^2}=-\dfrac{py}{x^2+p^2y^2}$
which are satisfied only when $p=1$
Also find the derivative means f'(z) do it yourself.